Certification in Pulmonary Disease Exam Prep
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Free Pulmonary Disease Practice Questions

10 exam-style questions with answers and explanations, straight from our 1,030-question bank. Tap an answer to check yourself. When you're ready, take the scored version in the free practice test.

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The Pulmonary Disease exam has 300 questions and runs 7 hours.

These 10 free Pulmonary Disease questions are organized by exam domain, so you can see how each part of the Certification in Pulmonary Disease blueprint is tested. Reveal the answer and explanation under each question.

Domain 3: Chronic bronchitis and emphysema (4-8%)

Question 1

A 66-year-old former smoker with COPD takes a long-acting beta2 agonist/long-acting muscarinic antagonist combination correctly and consistently. Despite pulmonary rehabilitation and smoking cessation, he has had two exacerbations requiring prednisone in the past year. FEV1 is 58% predicted. Blood eosinophil counts measured well after recovery are 410 and 390 cells/microliter. He has no asthma history, recurrent pneumonia, or chronic sputum production. Which maintenance change is best supported at this point?

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Correct answer: B - Add an inhaled corticosteroid to the existing dual bronchodilator regimen

Domain 4: Sleep disorders (3-7%)

Question 2

An outpatient sleep evaluation identifies an apnea-hypopnea index of 62 events/hour, almost all obstructive, in a 49-year-old woman with a BMI of 43 kg/m2. Oxygen saturation falls to 76% during sleep. While awake and clinically stable, her PaCO2 is 52 mm Hg, pH 7.38, and serum bicarbonate 30 mmol/L. COPD, neuromuscular disease, hypothyroidism, and sedating medications have been excluded. She has not had a recent admission for respiratory failure. For this combination of obesity hypoventilation and severe obstructive sleep apnea, which nocturnal treatment is preferred initially?

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Correct answer: C - Continuous positive airway pressure

Domain 5: Bronchiectasis/cystic fibrosis (1-3%)

Question 3

Recurrent episodes of wheezing and expectoration of brown mucus plugs prompt evaluation of a 35-year-old woman with asthma. CT demonstrates central bronchiectasis and mucus plugging without cavitation. Total IgE is 780 IU/mL, Aspergillus fumigatus-specific IgE is 3.1 kUA/L, and blood eosinophils are 920 cells/microliter. She has not recently received systemic corticosteroids and is not immunocompromised. Applying the revised ISHAM diagnostic criteria, how should this Aspergillus-related presentation be classified?

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Correct answer: D - Allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis

Domain 6: Interstitial lung disease (10-14%)

Question 4

At an interstitial lung disease conference, a 72-year-old former smoker is discussed after 18 months of progressive dyspnea and bibasal inspiratory crackles. A detailed evaluation finds no relevant exposure, causative medication, or connective tissue disease. High-resolution CT shows basal, subpleural reticulation and traction bronchiectasis without honeycombing or features suggesting an alternative diagnosis. The radiologist classifies the scan as probable usual interstitial pneumonia. Which statement accurately describes the role of lung biopsy here?

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Correct answer: D - A multidisciplinary diagnosis of idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis can be made without biopsy

Domain 7: Pneumonia/pulmonary infections (10-14%)

Question 5

Three days of fever, purulent sputum, and a new right lower-lobe consolidation lead to hospitalization of a 74-year-old man with poststroke dysphagia. Ceftriaxone and azithromycin are started for nonsevere community-acquired pneumonia. CT shows no lung abscess, necrosis, or empyema. He has no risk factors for MRSA or Pseudomonas infection. His swallowing evaluation documents recurrent aspiration. What antibiotic change is warranted solely because aspiration contributed to this episode?

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Correct answer: A - None; continue the current pneumonia regimen

Question 6

A patient with newly diagnosed HIV infection and a CD4 count of 38 cells/microliter has confirmed Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia. Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole has just been started. Before oxygen is applied, a room-air arterial blood gas at sea level shows PaO2 76 mm Hg and PaCO2 24 mm Hg. Using PAO2 = 150 - (PaCO2 / 0.8), which pairing correctly gives the alveolar-arterial oxygen gradient and its treatment implication?

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Correct answer: C - 44 mm Hg; add adjunctive corticosteroids

Domain 8: Tuberculosis (6-10%)

Question 7

A patient has completed two months of directly observed isoniazid, rifampin, pyrazinamide, and ethambutol for pulmonary tuberculosis, with substantial symptomatic improvement. The pretreatment radiograph had an upper-lobe cavity. A sputum specimen obtained at completion of two months of therapy remains culture-positive, and susceptibility testing confirms susceptibility to all first-line agents. Doses have not been missed. After completing this intensive phase, what continuation regimen is indicated?

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Correct answer: D - Isoniazid and rifampin for seven additional months

Domain 9: Benign/malignant neoplasms (2-6%)

Question 8

An 8-mm pure ground-glass nodule is found incidentally in an asymptomatic, immunocompetent 58-year-old never-smoker with no cancer history. Thin-section CT six months later confirms persistence without growth or a solid component. This is not a lung cancer screening examination. Under the Fleischner Society recommendations, what subsequent surveillance is appropriate if the nodule remains unchanged?

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Correct answer: B - CT every two years until five years of follow-up have been completed

Domain 17: PE/DVT (1-5%)

Question 9

Six hours after confirmation of bilateral pulmonary emboli, a 61-year-old patient remains alert with a blood pressure of 122/76 mm Hg, heart rate 116/min, lactate 1.4 mmol/L, and oxygen saturation 95% on 2 L/min. CT shows an RV/LV diameter ratio of 1.3, and troponin is elevated. There is no syncope, oliguria, or other evidence of hypoperfusion. Therapeutic anticoagulation has been initiated. Which disposition and reperfusion plan fits the findings?

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Correct answer: A - Continue anticoagulation with inpatient monitoring; reserve reperfusion for deterioration

Domain 19: Interpretation PFTs (7-11%)

Question 10

Pulmonary function testing for exertional dyspnea produces acceptable, repeatable maneuvers. The FEV1/FVC ratio is 0.56 (lower limit of normal, 0.68), FEV1 is 43% predicted, and FVC is 61% predicted. Plethysmography shows a total lung capacity of 103% predicted, within the laboratory reference range, and an RV/TLC ratio of 0.58 (upper limit of normal, 0.42). How should the reduced FVC be interpreted?

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Correct answer: A - Air trapping accompanying airflow obstruction, without demonstrated restriction

The rest of the Pulmonary Disease blueprint

The Pulmonary Disease exam also covers these domains. Drill them in the full free practice test:

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